Daily MCQs on UGC NET

Posted on Sep 3 2019 - 1:31pm by Preeti

Daily MCQs on UGC NET

In this  section we upload MCQs on UGC NET on daily basis. You can use it for the preparation of National Eligibilty Test . This section contains  study material in the form Multiple Choice Questions Answers . These Questions Answers can also be used for the preparation of Junior Research Fellowship(UGC NET JRF) exam. You can also follow us on facebook for daily updates on MCQs, Study Material and Mock Tests on UGC NET Exam. These objective type questions answers can also be used for the preparation of State Eligibilty Test (SET).These MCQs can also be used while preparing for Ph. D. Entrance Exam.

In which city India’s first e-waste clinic has been opened?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Surat
(c) Chennai
(d) Bengaluru

Correct answer is option a (Bhopal).

Explanation
India’s first e-waste clinic opens in Bhopal. It would enable segregation, processing and disposal of waste from both household and commercial units. The e-waste clinic is being started on the basis of a three-month pilot project. If this project is successful, e-waste clinics will be established at other places in the country.



Which is the most commonly used chemical for fruit ripening?
(a) Calcium carbide
(b) Boric acid
(c) Malathion
(d) Diazinon

Correct answer is option a (Calcium carbide).

Explanation
When calcium carbide comes in contact with moisture, it produces acetylene gas, which is quite similar in its effects to the natural ripening agent, ethylene. Acetylene acts like ethylene and accelerates the ripening process. Other than the Calcium Carbide, Ethylene, Ethephon are also in common practice in artificial ripening of fruits.



 Motivational Research is an important type of which form of research?
(a) Quantitative research
(b) Qualitative research
(c) Applied research
(d) Fundamental research

Correct answer is option b (Qualitative research).

Explanation
Qualitative research is concerned with qualitative phenomenon i.e. phenomenon involving or relating to quality or kind. For example, when we are interests in investigating the reasons for human behavior we quite often talk about ‘Motivational Research’, an important type of qualitative research. This type of research aims at discovering the underlying motives and desires, using in depth interviews for the purpose. Other techniques of such research are word association tests, sentence completion tests, story completion tests and similar other projective techniques.



Main body of the research report includes-
(a) Introduction- Statement, significance and purposes
(b) Assumptions and delimitations and assumptions underlying the hypothesis.
(c) Definition of important terms, statement of hypothesis.
(d) All of these

Correct answer is option d (All of these).

Explanation:
The body of the report is composed of a series of chapters that describe the subject of the report. It is divided into topics which are arranged in a logical order with headings and sub-headings. The body of the report must address:
• Why was the study necessary? (the purpose)
• When, where, how and by whom the study was conducted?
• What were the findings?
• What conclusions were drawn?
• What recommendations were made?

The main body of the report is divided into five sub-sections, namely introduction, review of the literature, design of the study, presentation and analysis of data, summary and conclusions. Introduction is the starting point.



The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
(a) Address box
(b) Message box
(c) Address book
(d) Message book

Correct answer is option c (Address Book)

Explanation:
The Address Book is a convenient tool for storing the email addresses and other contact information of people you frequently email. The Address Book screen displays the Name, Email Address, and Phone number of each contact, that you have added to your address book.



Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?
(a) Personality tests
(b) Projective personality tests
(c) Aptitude tests
(d) Interest and attitude scales

Correct answer is option c (Aptitude Tests)

Explanation:

These assess the individual’s ability to perform effectively under standard conditions. Performance on these tests, which includes ability and aptitude tests, can be judged as right or wrong.
Types of Maximum Performance Tests

ACHIEVMENT & APTITUDE TESTS
Achievement Tests : These test assess knowledge of info you’ve been taught. Directly tied to instruction.
Aptitude Tests: It measure cognitive ability. Skills gathered from overall live.

SPEED & POWER TEST
Speed Tests: These tests reflect how quickly a task is performed. Speed test are timed tests that is they examine the subject’s speed of responding within the stipulated period of time
Power tests : contains no time deadline but very difficult items.

OBJECTIVE & SUBJECTIVE
Objective : when scoring doesn’t require subjective judgment (example: multiple choice test).
Subjective: requires some subjective judgment (example: essay test).



The time-frame in which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the:
(a) Reference period
(b) Age
(c) Longitudinal
(d) Retrospective time

Correct answer is option a (Reference Period).

Explanation:
The reference period refers to the time-frame in which a study is exploring a phenomenon, situation, event or problem. Studies are categorized from this perspective:

(a) Retrospective
Retrospective studies investigate a phenomenon, situation, problem or issue that has happened in the past. They are usually conducted either on the basis of the data available for that period or on the basis of respondent’s recall of the situation.

(b) Prospective
Prospective studies refer to the likely prevalence of a phenomenon, situation, problem, attitude or outcome in the future. Such studies attempt to establish the outcome of an event or what is likely to happen.

(c) Retrospective
Retrospective-prospective studies focus on a phenomenon in the past and study it in the future. Part of the data is collected retrospectively form the existing records before the intervention is introduced and then the study population is followed to ascertain the impact of the intervention. The only difference between these studies and before-and-after studies is that they do not have a control group.



Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses has been renamed after which person?
(a) Lt General Manoj Mukund Naravane
(b) Sushma Swaraj
(c) Rajnath Singh
(d) Manohar Parrikar

Correct answer is option d (Manohar Parrikar)

Explanation
IDSA was established on 11 November 1965 as a non-partisan and autonomous body. It is funded by the Indian Ministry of Defence and plays a key role in shaping India’s foreign and security policies. In February 2020 IDSA was renamed as ‘Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (MP-IDSA)’ after former Defence Minister Manohar Parrikar. The current Director General is Ambassador Sujan R. Chinoy, who took over the reins of IDSA on 3 January 2019 on a three-year assignment. MP-IDSA is the only think-tank in India whose Director General is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Manohar Gopalkrishna Prabhu Parrikar (13 December 1955 – 17 March 2019) was an Indian politician and leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party who served as Chief Minister of Goa from 14 March 2017 until his death.In 2020 he was awarded with Padma Bhushan, third-highest civilian award in the Republic of India, preceded by the Bharat Ratna and the Padma Vibhushan and followed by the Padma Shri.



Lithium reserves of 14,100 tonnes have been found in which city?
(a) Chennai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Mangalore
(d) Hyderabad

Correct answer is option b (Bengaluru).

Explanation:
The reserve of lithium, a rare metal critical to build batteries for electric vehicles has been discovered by the researchers of the Atomic Minerals Directorate, a unit of India’s Atomic Energy Commission at Mandya ( a city located 100 Km away from Bengaluru) . The researches have estimated that Mandya has around 14K tonnes of lithium reserves.



Which protocol is used to receive e-mail?
(a) SMTP
(b) POP3
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP

Correct answer is option b (POP3)

Explanation:
IMAP and POP3 are the two most commonly used Internet mail protocols for retrieving emails. Both protocols are supported by all modern email clients and web servers.
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) – Is a standard protocol for accessing e-mail from your local server. IMAP is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you by your Internet server.
The POP (Post Office Protocol 3) protocol provides a simple, standardized way for users to access mailboxes and download messages to their computers.
The SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) protocol is used by the Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) to deliver your eMail to the recipient’s mail server. The SMTP protocol can only be used to send emails, not to receive them.
The HTTP protocol is not a protocol dedicated for email communications, but it can be used for accessing your mailbox. Also called web based email, this protocol can be used to compose or retrieve emails from an your account. Hotmail is a good example of using HTTP as an email protocol.



Who among the following proposed the theory of Multiple Intelligences?
(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Howard Gardner
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) Jean Piaget

Correct answer is option b ( Howard Gardner)

Explanation:
Multiple intelligences is a theory proposed by Harvard developmental psychologist Howard Gardner in 1983 that suggests human intelligence can be differentiated into eight modalities. These intelligences are:
i. Visual-Spatial Intelligence (visual thinking)
These individuals are often good with directions as well as maps, charts, videos, and pictures.
ii. Linguistic intelligence (word smart)
People who are strong in linguistic-verbal intelligence are able to use words well, both when writing and speaking. These individuals are good at writing stories, memorizing information, and reading.
iii. Logical-mathematical intelligence (number/reasoning smart)
People who are strong in logical-mathematical intelligence are able to analyze problems and mathematical operations. They are good at reasoning and recognizing patterns.
iv. Bodily-Kinesthetic intelligence (body smart)
Those who have high bodily-kinesthetic intelligence are said to be good at body movement, performing actions, and physical control.
v. Musical intelligence (music smart)
People who have strong musical intelligence are good at thinking in patterns, rhythms, and sounds. They have a strong appreciation for music.
vi. Interpersonal intelligence (people smart)
Those who have strong interpersonal intelligence are good at understanding and interacting with other people.
vii. Intrapersonal intelligence (self smart)
Individuals who are strong in intrapersonal intelligence are good at being aware of their own emotional states, feelings, and motivations.
viii. Naturalist intelligence (nature smart)
Naturalistic is the most recent addition to Gardner’s theory and has been met with more resistance than his original seven intelligences. According to Gardner, individuals who are high in this type of intelligence are more in tune with nature and are often interested in nurturing, exploring the environment, and learning about other species.

Gardner proposed that there are eight intelligences, and has suggested the possible addition of a ninth known as “existentialist intelligence. People with Naturalist intelligence have a sensitivity to and appreciation for nature. The Naturalist intelligence focuses on how people relate to their natural surroundings. Naturalists have a special ability to grow plants, vegetables and fruit. They have an affinity for animals and are good at training and understanding them.



Bluetooth is an example of:
(a) PAN
(b) LAN
(c) MAN
(d) WAN

Correct answer is option a(PAN)

Explanation:
A personal area network (PAN) is a computer network for interconnecting devices centered on an individual person’s workspace. A PAN provides data transmission among devices such as computers, smartphones, tablets and personal digital assistants. PANs can be used for communication among the personal devices themselves, or for connecting to a higher level network and the Internet where one master device takes up the role as gateway. A PAN may be wireless or carried over wired interfaces such as USB.
A wireless personal area network (WPAN) is a PAN carried over a low-powered, short-distance wireless network technology such as IrDA, Wireless USB, Bluetooth or ZigBee. The reach of a WPAN varies from a few centimeters to a few meters.



RFID is an acronym for:
(a) Roaming Frequency Identification
(b) Radio Frequency Identification
(c) Runtime Frequency Identification
(d) Remote Frequency Identification

Correct answer is option b (Radio Frequency Identification)

Explanation:
RFID is an acronym for “radio-frequency identification” and refers to a technology whereby digital data encoded in RFID tags or smart labels are captured by a reader via radio waves. RFID is similar to barcoding in that data from a tag or label are captured by a device that stores the data in a database. RFID, however, has several advantages over systems that use barcode asset tracking software. The most notable is that RFID tag data can be read outside the line-of-sight, whereas barcodes must be aligned with an optical scanner.
To reduce vehicular traffic at the toll plazas, the Government of India (GOI) has mandated all toll plazas, pan India, to make toll payments electronic. With this mandate, all vehicles travelling through toll plazas will have to mandatorily pay toll charges using FASTag.
FASTag is an electronic toll collection system in India, operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI). It employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the prepaid or savings account linked to it or directly toll owner.



According to Jean Piaget, there are …….….  stages of cognitive development
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

Correct answer is option b (4).

Explanation

Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development suggests that children move through four different stages of mental development. These are:
i. Sensorimotor stage- from birth to 2 years
ii. Preoperational stage from age 2 to 7
iii. Concrete operational stage from age 7 to 11
iv. Formal operational stage from age 12 and above



Which among the following is the cognitive characteristics of learner?
(a) Sensory perception
(b) Belief
(c) Academic self-concept
(d) Level of visual literacy

Correct answer is option d (Level of visual Literacy)

Explanation
Cognitive characteristics of learner includes:
General aptitudes, Specific aptitudes, Development level, Language development level, Reading level, Level of visual literacy, Cognitive processing styles, Learning styles, Cognitive and learning strategies, General world knowledge and Specific prior knowledge.



The performance of a student is compared with another student in which type of testing?
(a) Criterion referenced testing
(b) Diagnostic testing
(c) Summative testing
(d) Norm-referenced testing

Correct answer is option d (Norm-referenced testing).

Explanation

A criterion-referenced test is designed to measure a student’s academic performance against some standard or criteria. This standard or criteria is predetermined before students begin the test. The student’s score then shows the progress they have made toward the agreed-upon standard–if they fall short, they must continue to work toward the standard. In elementary and secondary education, criterion-referenced tests are used to evaluate whether students have learned a specific body of knowledge or acquired a specific skill set. An example: When you take your temperature, the accepted healthy standard is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. If your temperature is higher, you are not meeting the standard for health and are likely ill.

A diagnostic test helps identify a student’s learning problems so teachers can provide instruction to remedy those problems. Therefore it is a kind of pre-assessment that allows a teacher to determine students’ individual strengths, weaknesses, knowledge, and skills prior to instruction. It is primarily used to diagnose student difficulties and to guide lesson and curriculum planning.

The summative testing is any method of evaluation performed at the end of a unit, course, semester, program or school year that allows a teacher to measure a student’s understanding, typically against standardized criteria. It is used to evaluate student learning, skill acquisition, and academic achievement at the conclusion of a defined instructional period.

Difference between Formative and Summative Testing
Formative Tests are quizzes and tests that evaluate how someone is learning material throughout a course.
Summative Tests are quizzes and tests that evaluate how much someone has learned throughout a course.

Norm-referenced tests refers to standardized tests that are designed to compare and rank test takers in relation to one another. Norm-referenced tests report whether test takers performed better or worse than a hypothetical average student, which is determined by comparing scores against the performance results of a statistically selected group of test takers, typically of the same age or grade level, who have already taken the exam.
Both terms criterion-referenced and norm-referenced were originally coined by Robert Glaser. Unlike a criterion-reference test, a norm-referenced test indicates whether the test-taker did better or worse than other people who took the test.



‘Vidyalakshmi Portal’ has been launched:
(a) To provide students with single window electronic platform for scholarships and educational loans.
(b) To offer information related to elementary, secondary, higher secondary and higher education.
(c) To provide online degree courses from accounting and economics to engineering and also carries material on niche subjects like behavioural psychology.
(d) To provide easy loan to unemployed.

Correct answer is option a.

Explanation

Vidya Lakshmi is a first of its kind portal for students seeking Education Loan. This portal has been developed under the guidance of Department of Financial Services, (Ministry of Finance) , Department of Higher Education (Ministry of Human Resource Development) and Indian Banks Association (IBA).The portal has been developed and being maintained by NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited. Students can view, apply and track the education loan applications to banks anytime, anywhere by accessing the portal. The portal also provides linkages to National Scholarship Portal.



‘Minamata Convention’ often seen in news is related to :
(a) Sulphur
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Mercury
Correct answer is option d (Mercury).
Explanation
The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. This Convention was a result of three years of meeting and negotiating, after which the text of the Convention was approved by delegates representing close to 140 countries on 19 January 2013 in Geneva and adopted and signed later that year on 10 October 2013 at a Diplomatic Conference held in Kumamoto, Japan. The Convention is named after the Japanese city Minamata. This naming is of symbolic importance as the city went through a devastating incident of mercury poisoning. The Minamata Convention provides controls over a myriad of products containing mercury, the manufacture, import and export of which will be altogether prohibited by 2020, except where countries have requested an exemption for an initial 5-year period. These products include certain types of batteries, compact fluorescent lamps, relays, soaps and cosmetics, thermometers, and blood pressure devices. Dental fillings which use mercury amalgam are also regulated under the Convention, and their use must be phased down through a number of measures.
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